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ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation EXAM PREPARATION

Prepare Smarter for the ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Exam

Build your exam confidence with flexible preparation resources designed around the latest ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation exam objectives. Practice at your own pace using PDF questions, online exam simulations, or desktop practice software.

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Question #1 (Topic: Demo Questions)

Which statement describes a requirement of an internal audit programme?

A.

The programme must use third party auditors to ensure impartiality


B.

Previous audit results are disregarded to ensure objectivity


C.

The programme must consider the importance of the target processes


D.

All processes must be audited within a 3-year cycle

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:

Clause 9.2.2 of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 specifies requirements for the internal audit programme. It requires organizations to:

“ Plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s) including the frequency, methods, responsibilities, planning requirements and reporting, which shall take into consideration the importance of the processes concerned, changes affecting the organization, and the results of previous audits. ”

This makes option C correct, since importance of the processes is a required factor. Option A is incorrect because audits do not need third-party auditors; objectivity can be maintained internally if independence is respected. Option B is wrong because previous audit results must be considered, not disregarded. Option D is also incorrect — the standard does not specify a 3-year cycle; frequency depends on risks and needs.

Thus, the correct verified answer is C

Question #2 (Topic: Demo Questions)

Which item is required to be defined when planning the organization's risk assessment process?

A.

The parts of the ISMS scope which are excluded from the risk assessment


B.

How the effectiveness of the method will be measured


C.

The criteria for acceptable levels of risk


D.

There are NO specific information requirements

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:

Clause 6.1.2 (Information security risk assessment) requires organizations to “ define and apply an information security risk assessment process that… establishes and maintains information security risk criteria, including criteria for accepting risk. ”

This means that acceptable levels of risk (risk acceptance criteria) must be explicitly defined. These criteria ensure consistent decision-making when evaluating whether identified risks need further treatment or can be tolerated.

Option A is incorrect because exclusions relate to the ISMS scope (Clause 4.3), not risk assessment planning. Option B is not a requirement; effectiveness of risk assessment methods is not required to be measured, though methods must be applied consistently. Option D is false—the standard clearly specifies required elements for risk assessment.

Thus, the correct answer is C: The criteria for acceptable levels of risk.

Question #3 (Topic: Demo Questions)

What is the definition of a threat according to ISO/IEC 27000?

A.

A potential cause of an unwanted incident which can result in harm to a system or organization


B.

A single or a series of unwanted or unexpected information security events


C.

A weakness of an asset or a control that can be exploited


D.

The risk remaining after risk treatment

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:

According to ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.74, a threat is defined as:

“ Potential cause of an unwanted incident, which can result in harm to a system or organization. ”

This definition directly matches option A.

    Option B refers to an “information security incident” (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.32).

    Option C describes a “vulnerability” (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.67).

    Option D refers to “residual risk” (ISO/IEC 27000:2018, Clause 3.61).

The standard emphasizes that threats exploit vulnerabilities, causing incidents that can harm information confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Correctly identifying threats is critical for risk assessment (Clause 6.1.2). Thus, the correct definition per ISO/IEC 27000 is A .

Question #4 (Topic: Demo Questions)

Which statement describes the Classification of information control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?

A.

Ensures that all information assets are labelled with their classification


B.

Ensures that information is classified based on confidentiality, integrity and availability


C.

Ensures that security perimeters are used to protect assets


D.

Ensures the rules to control physical and logical access apply to assets

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:

Annex A.5.12 (Classification of information) states:

“ Information should be classified according to the information security needs of the organization based on confidentiality, integrity and availability. ”

This aligns directly with option B. Option A (labelling) is a separate control (Annex A.5.13). Option C (security perimeters) is under physical controls (Annex A.7.1). Option D (access control rules) relates to Annex A.5.15 and A.8.2.

Thus, the verified correct statement for the Classification of information control is B .

Question #5 (Topic: Demo Questions)

Which activity is an operational planning and control requirement?

A.

Review the consequences of unintended changes


B.

Perform information security risk assessments at planned intervals


C.

Scheduling of second party audits


D.

Document information security objectives

Next Question
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:

Clause 8.1 (Operational planning and control) requires organizations to:

“Ensure that changes are controlled. The organization shall review the consequences of unintended changes, taking action to mitigate any adverse effects, as necessary.”

This requirement ensures that operational processes are planned, controlled, and adjusted where unexpected changes occur. Risk assessments (B) are covered in Clause 6.1.2 (Planning), not operations. Scheduling second-party audits (C) is not an ISMS requirement but part of supplier/customer arrangements. Documenting objectives (D) belongs to Clause 6.2 (Planning).

Thus, the required operational planning and control activity is A: Review the consequences of unintended changes.